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A person can do a piece of work in 26 days and an another person can do the same work in 39 days. If they work together, then by what per cent the wages of 1st person is more than that of 2nd person?

Correct Answer:

A) 25% |
B) 35% |

C) 15% |
D) 50% |

Correct Answer:

D) 50% |

Description for Correct answer:

Let 1st person be x and 2nd person be y.

Then, x's 1 day's work = \( \Large \frac{1}{26} \)

Y's 1 days work = \( \Large \frac{1}{39} \)

x's share : y's share = \( \Large \frac{1}{26} \) : \( \Large \frac{1}{39} \)

= \( \Large \frac{3}{78} \) : \( \Large \frac{2}{78} \) = 3 : 2

Difference of ratio = 3 - 2 = 1

Therefore, Required percentage = \( \Large \frac{1}{2} \times 100\% \) = 50%

1st person's wages is 50% more than the 2nd person's wages.

Let 1st person be x and 2nd person be y.

Then, x's 1 day's work = \( \Large \frac{1}{26} \)

Y's 1 days work = \( \Large \frac{1}{39} \)

x's share : y's share = \( \Large \frac{1}{26} \) : \( \Large \frac{1}{39} \)

= \( \Large \frac{3}{78} \) : \( \Large \frac{2}{78} \) = 3 : 2

Difference of ratio = 3 - 2 = 1

Therefore, Required percentage = \( \Large \frac{1}{2} \times 100\% \) = 50%

1st person's wages is 50% more than the 2nd person's wages.

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